[antlr-interest] Re: Nondeterminism problem
Oliver Zeigermann
oliver at zeigermann.de
Thu Dec 18 06:31:05 PST 2003
--- In antlr-interest at yahoogroups.com, "sarah2geller"
<sarah2geller at y...> wrote:
> --- In antlr-interest at yahoogroups.com, Oliver Zeigermann
> <oliver at z...> wrote:
> > For me it boils down to what is the relation of approximate LALL(k)
> > and SLL(k)? Certainly not SLL(k) superset approximate LALL(k) and
> > also not the other way round. Can someone clarify for me, please?
> >
>
> For the case of k=1, all top-down grammars are equivalent. That is
>
> LL(1) == SLL(1) == LALL(1)
>
> Only for the case of k>1 does the left context become a factor in the
> strength of the grammar. The difference is subtle, and always depends
> on the lookahead strings. Approximate lookahead has no knowledge of
> strings, only token sets at each k-level. So the distinction between
> LL, LALL, and SLL is meaningless and
>
> LL'(k) == SLL'(k) == LALL'(k)
>
> and these are all very small subsets of any of the classical LL
> grammars, including SLL(k).
Could you explain why this is the case? Maybe it is obvious, but I do
not see why LALL'(k) subset SLL(k)...
> Put another way, if you convert an exponential number of lookaheads
> to a linear one, would you not expect to lose considerable
> recognition power?
Of course, but this only is an argument for LL'(k) subset LL(k), isn't it?
> Go back to the original grammar of this thread. It was SLL(2) by
> inspection, yet approximate lookahead could not handle it.
I got that, but this does not prove LALL'(k) subset SLL(k). It only
proves SLL(k) not subset LALL'(k), but not the other way round.
Anyway, thanks for taking it this far! I really appreciate that :)
Oliver
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